Here's an argument offered by Rabbi Simmons on AISH (among others who I've been recently in communication):
"There is a very powerful verse in the Torah (Deuteronomy 4:32-33):
"You might inquire about times long past, from the day that G-d created man on earth, [exploring] one end of heaven to the other. Has there ever been anything like this great thing or has anything like it been heard? Has a people ever heard the voice of G-d speaking from the midst of the fires as you have heard, and survived?"
The Torah goes out on a limb and declares that nobody else will ever even attempt such a claim of national revelation! How could the author know such a thing?!
...Understand what we are saying here. The Author of the Torah would need foreknowledge of all of world history in order to make the claim that none of the other 15,000 religions would ever claim national revelation.
How could the Author know that? Because you can't formulate a lie based on someone else's experience. And that's why no other nation will ever make the claim of National Revelation.
...The answer is that they knew that if national revelation can never be fabricated; so too, it's validity can therefore never be denied."
What he's saying is that a proof for the veracity of the Torah lies in the fact that the Torah says nobody else makes a similar claim and in fact no other such claim has been found.
Now, the argument for one has unfair advantages. How far does the idea of "national revelation" extend? For most people, religion is not the same thing as a nation and so the method of national revelation to prove a religion's claims is nonsensical. Second, how similar must the alternative claim be to be seen as similar to the Torah's claim to count as a disproof of the Torah's assurance that nobody will make the same claim? There are a million details that can be used to disqualify the newfound claim as different, but this leads to a meaninglessness of the test.
I suspect that the Torah is NOT making the claim that nobody has or ever will make such a claim but that it simply, as a historical fact, has never happened before and will not happen again. I'm actually not arguing here with the Torah, but with overactive apologists who read more into the text to serve their own agendas.
I think that to satisfy Rabbi Simmons test all that is needed is a non-Sinaitic example of a claim wherein a god reveals himself to a large multitude.
So, now let's take a look at what I found recently.
Book XI of the Iliad begins with:
"AND now as Dawn rose from her couch beside Tithonus, harbinger of light alike to mortals and immortals, Jove sent fierce Discord with the ensign of war in her hands to the ships of the Achaeans. She took her stand by the huge black hull of Ulysses' ship which was middlemost of all, so that her voice might carry farthest on either side, on the one hand towards the tents of Ajax son of Telamon, and on the other towards those of Achilles - for these two heroes, well-assured of their own strength, had valorously drawn up their ships at the two ends of the line. There she took her stand, and raised a cry both loud and shrill that filled the Achaeans with courage, giving them heart to fight resolutely and with all their might, so that they had rather stay there and do battle than go home in their ships."
Now, according to the Iliad in various implications, the Achaean force must have been many thousands of soldiers strong. The phrase "tens of thousands" is used to describe footmen alone. Based on the number of ships that went on the attack, outlined in Book II, an approximation of 100,000 men is hardly out of line.
As written here, Discord, the goddess of, well, discord, on command from Zeus (Jove) raises her voice before the presence of many thousands of Greek soldiers to encourage them in their fight. Does this prove the existence of the goddess Discord via the Kuzari argument? Or at the very least does it satisfy Rabbi Simmons requirements? I think it might.